Comment by Nelson on September 14, 2010 at 8:33pm

first, common misunderstanding- the immaculate conception refers to Mary's conception, not Jesus', and is about Mary having been conceived without the stain of original sin. second, as far your thought goes, it's the immaculate conception, not the immaculate asexual reproduction. if you're going to say that Jesus, in having been conceived by Mary alone without a Y chromosome, why shouldn't we also find that Jesus should have not only have been a woman but also have been an identical genetic copy of Mary, a clone?
but of course it's very much a god bonks Mary on the head with his magic wand and *poof*, Jesus, so Jesus could have been anything regardless of lacking a human Y chromosome. :)

Comment by DrDee on September 15, 2010 at 10:30am

With parthenogenesis that is the way it works. Of course, Christian apologist have a pat answr for that also which makes absolutely no sense, but when have they ever?

Comment by Jon Heim on September 15, 2010 at 10:42am

I still say, in times where you would have been stoned to death...If she had been raped or if she were having an affair, she wouldn't tell anyone. Therefor....hey! it's a miracle!

Comment by Eoganacht on September 16, 2010 at 12:13am

@ Jon Heim - That sounds very simular to islamic law.

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