I ran into a debate where this question was raised, naturally when I lack the knowledge of an issue I either concede or pursue the knowledge and offer a rebuttal or sometimes both.
"As I have stated many, many times before, and as people like you keep
ignoring, that does not mean that there is to be a complete separation
between religion and state. All it means is that the state is not to
favor one religion above another. The fact that there was not to be a
complete separation between church and state is shown by the fact that
the very people who wrote the First Amendment also created the offices
of Chaplain for both the House and Senate. I keep asking this question
and those of you who keep pushing the idea that there is to be a
complete separation never answer it. If the First Amendment was supposed
to create a complete separation between church and state, then why did
those who wrote it create such overtly religious positions within the
legislative branch of the government?"
Anyone have any knowledge on this issue who can shed some light, or point me into a direction?