Not a contradiction per se, but rather odd....
A bit of trivia for you, and something to bring out the next time some yahoos want to tell you about the Good News.
Look up these two passages in these unrelated books. I took these from the KJV:
First, from Isaiah 2:
2:2 And it shall come to pass in the last days, that the mountain of the LORD's house shall be established in the top of the mountains, and shall be exalted above the hills; and all nations shall flow unto it.
2:3 And many people shall go and say, Come ye, and let us go up to the mountain of the LORD, to the house of the God of Jacob; and he will teach us of his ways, and we will walk in his paths: for out of Zion shall go forth the law, and the word of the LORD from Jerusalem.
2:4 And he shall judge among the nations, and shall rebuke many people: and they shall beat their swords into plowshares, and their spears into pruninghooks: nation shall not lift up sword against nation, neither shall they learn war any more.
Got that? Then skip ahead to Micah 4:
4:1 But in the last days it shall come to pass, that the mountain of the house of the LORD shall be established in the top of the mountains, and it shall be exalted above the hills; and people shall flow unto it.
4:2 And many nations shall come, and say, Come, and let us go up to the mountain of the LORD, and to the house of the God of Jacob; and he will teach us of his ways, and we will walk in his paths: for the law shall go forth of Zion, and the word of the LORD from Jerusalem.
4:3 And he shall judge among many people, and rebuke strong nations afar off; and they shall beat their swords into plowshares, and their spears into pruninghooks: nation shall not lift up a sword against nation, neither shall they learn war any more.
It is essentially verbatim. As if God accidentally did an extra Paste operation using whatever version of Word He had. For a book allegedly of divine origin, that is supposed to be so sublime, how can this be explained?
Look up these two passages in these unrelated books. I took these from the KJV:
First, from Isaiah 2:
2:2 And it shall come to pass in the last days, that the mountain of the LORD's house shall be established in the top of the mountains, and shall be exalted above the hills; and all nations shall flow unto it.
2:3 And many people shall go and say, Come ye, and let us go up to the mountain of the LORD, to the house of the God of Jacob; and he will teach us of his ways, and we will walk in his paths: for out of Zion shall go forth the law, and the word of the LORD from Jerusalem.
2:4 And he shall judge among the nations, and shall rebuke many people: and they shall beat their swords into plowshares, and their spears into pruninghooks: nation shall not lift up sword against nation, neither shall they learn war any more.
Got that? Then skip ahead to Micah 4:
4:1 But in the last days it shall come to pass, that the mountain of the house of the LORD shall be established in the top of the mountains, and it shall be exalted above the hills; and people shall flow unto it.
4:2 And many nations shall come, and say, Come, and let us go up to the mountain of the LORD, and to the house of the God of Jacob; and he will teach us of his ways, and we will walk in his paths: for the law shall go forth of Zion, and the word of the LORD from Jerusalem.
4:3 And he shall judge among many people, and rebuke strong nations afar off; and they shall beat their swords into plowshares, and their spears into pruninghooks: nation shall not lift up a sword against nation, neither shall they learn war any more.
It is essentially verbatim. As if God accidentally did an extra Paste operation using whatever version of Word He had. For a book allegedly of divine origin, that is supposed to be so sublime, how can this be explained?
Replies to This Discussion
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Permalink Reply by Nelson on -
well, if i was a bible believer it would be exceedingly easy to explain-- the holy spirit, the divine inspiration behind the prophecies of Isaiah and of Micah, and indeed of all the prophets, just gave both Isaiah and Micah the same words to emphasize them.
of course that's not true. we know that the first part of the book of Isaiah, chapters 1-11, was written between 740-730 BCE while the rest of Isaiah was written much later. the book of Micah was written no earlier than 722 but possibly sometime after 701. but we also know that Micah was revised and updated sometime soon after 458 BCE.
since the first part of Isaiah was written before Micah it's entirely possible that the writer of Micah ripped off the book of Isaiah. or, it's perhaps no less possible that, at the time of the revision and updating of Micah, the passage was added then. finally, possibly the passage was original to Micah and was only added to Isaiah later.
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