So I posted the following in Reddit and several comments have started showing up in regards to the inaccuracy of the statement. So I ask you community, is this accurate as it pertains to Christianity and if so why or if not why?

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Should not justice be blind in order to be truly "just" as the etymology suggests?  Does not a society have to use this objective reasoning when deciding justice? 

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Posted by Carol Foley on November 20, 2014 at 3:17am 2 Comments

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