If a equals a (A=A) and a equals b (A=B), how come A=A ≠ A=B. What informs A through B which A doesn't inform itself?

Picked from: Conversations with History - John Perry on YouTube. (Link button does not work)

http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=61-Txd9dFv0&feature=relmfu

Tags: conundrum

Views: 288

Reply to This

Replies to This Discussion

"The field of Archaeoastronomy and Stonehenge disagrees:"

Not really. It was astrology. Just as science arose out of philosophy, so astronomy arose out of astrology. I don't know what stonehenge was used for, but I'm pretty sure if it is a lunar calendar, or a solstice calculator or some such, the druids (or whoever it was who put it there), did not do it for a love of science, they wanted to figure out what their gods were telling them

RSS

Blog Posts

Kids Logic

Posted by Mai on February 28, 2015 at 5:33am 3 Comments

Forever Cursed

Posted by Nerdy Keith on February 25, 2015 at 8:00pm 3 Comments

Services we love!

Advertise with ThinkAtheist.com

© 2015   Created by umar.

Badges  |  Report an Issue  |  Terms of Service